UGC NET Solved Question Paper 1 July 2018
1. Which of the following set of statements best describes the nature and objectives of teaching?
(a) Teaching and learning are integrally related.
(b) There is no difference between teaching and training.
(c) The concern of all teaching is to ensure some kind of transformation in students.
(d) All good teaching is formal in nature.
(e) A teacher is a senior person.
(f) Teaching is a social act whereas learning is a personal act Code:
(1) (a), (b) and (d)
(2) (b), (c) and (e)
(3) (a), (c) and (f)
(4) (d), (e) and (f)
Answer: 3
2. Which of the following learner characteristics is highly related to the activeness of teaching?
(1) Prior experience of the learner
(2) Educational status of the parents of the learner
(3) Peer groups of the learner
(4) Family size from which the learner comes.
Answer: 1
3. Among the two sets given below, the SetâI indicates methods of teaching while SetâII provides the basic requirements for success/ activeness. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing from the code:
(a) Lecturing
(b) Discussion in groups
(c) Brainstorming
(d) Programmed Instructional procedure
(i) Small step presentation with feedback provided
(ii) Production of a large number of ideas
(iii) Content delivery in a lucid language
(iv)Use of teaching-aids
(v) Theme based interaction among participants
Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) i (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(3) (iii) (v) (ii) (i)
4 (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
Answer: 3
4. From the list of evaluation procedures given below identify those which will be called âformative evaluationâ. Indicate your answer by choosing from the code:
(a) A teacher awards grades to students after having transacted the course work.
(b) During interaction with students in the classroom, the teacher provides corrective feedback.
(c) The teacher gives marks to students on a unit test.
(d) The teacher clarifies to doubts of students in the class itself.
(e) The overall performance of a studentâs us reported to parents at every three-months interval.
(f) The learnerâs motivation is raised by the teacher through a question-answer session.
Codes:
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (e)
(4) (b), (d) and (f)
Answer: 4
5. Assertion (A): All teaching should aim at ensuring learning.
Reason (R): All learning results from teaching. Choose the correct answer from the following code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: 3
6. There are two sets given below.
Set â I species the types of research, while Set âII indicates their characteristics. Match the two and give your answer by selecting the appropriate code.
Set â I (Research types)
(a) Fundamental research
(b) Applied research
(c) Action research
(d) Evaluative research
Set â II (Characteristics)
(i) Finding out the extent of the perceived impact of an intervention
(ii) Developing an effective explanation through theory building
(iii) Improving an existing situation through the use of interventions
(iv) Exploring the possibility of theory for use in various situations
(v) Enriching technological resources Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) ii (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
Answer: 1
7. Which of the sets of activities best indicate the cyclic nature of action research strategy?
(1) Reflect, Observe, Plan, Act
(2) Observe, Act, Reflect, Plan
(3) Act, Plan, Observe, Reflect
(4) Plan, Act, Observe, Reflect
Answer: 4
8. Which of the following sequence of research steps is nearer to the scientific method?
(1) Suggested solution of the problem, Deducing the consequences of the solution, Perceiving the problem situation, Location of the difficulty and testing the solutions.
(2) Perceiving the problem situation, Locating the actual problem and its definition, Hypothesizing, Deducing the consequences of the suggested solution and Testing the hypothesis in action.
(3) Defining a problem, Identifying the causes of the problem, Defining a population, Drawing a sample, Collecting data and Analyzing results.
(4) Identifying the causal factors, Defining the problem, Developing a hypothesis, Selecting a sample, Collecting data and arriving at generalization and Conclusions.
Answer: 2
9. The problem of âresearch ethicsâ is concerned with which aspect of research activities?
(1) Following the prescribed format of a thesis
(2) Data analysis through a qualitative or quantitative technique
(3) Defining the population of research
(4) Evidence based research reporting
Answer: 4
10. In which of the following activities, the potential for nurturing creative and critical thinking is relatively greater?
(1) Preparing the research summary
(2) Presenting a seminar paper
(3) Participation in the research conference
(4) Participation in a workshop
Answer: 3
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 11 to 15:
If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the technological imperatives, keeping in mind three dynamic dimensions: the people, the overall economy and the strategic interests. These technological imperatives also take into account a âfourthâ dimensions, time, and oô shoot of modern-day dynamism in business, trade, and technology that leads to continually shifting targets. We believe that technological strengths are especially crucial in dealing with this fourth dimension underlying the continuous change in the aspirations of the people, the economy in the global context, and the strategic interests. The progress of technology lies at the heart of human history. Technological strengths are the key to creating more productive employment in an increasingly competitive market place and to continually upgrade human skills. Without a pervasive use of technologies, we cannot achieve the overall development of our people in the years to come. The direct linkages of technology to the nationâs strategic strengths are becoming more and clearer, especially since the 1990s. Indiaâs own strength in a number of core areas still puts it in a position of reasonable strength in a geopolitical context. Any nation aspiring to become a developed one needs to have strengths in various strategic technologies and also the ability to continually upgrade them through its own creative strengths. For people-oriented actions as well, whether for the creation of large scale productive employment or for ensuring nutritional and health security for people or for better living conditions, technology is the only vital input. The absence of greater technological impetus could lead to lower productivity and wastage of precious natural resources. Activities with low productivity or low-value addition, in the final analysis, hurt the poorest most important. India, aspiring to become a major economic power in terms of trade and increase in GDP, cannot succeed on the strength of turnkey projects designed and built abroad or only through large-scale imports of plant machinery, equipment and know-how. Even while being alive to the short term realities, medium and long-term strategies to develop core technological strengths within our industry are vital for envisioning a developed India.
11. According to the above passage, which of the following are indicative of the fourth dimension?
(a) Aspirations of people
(b) Modern-day dynamism
(c) The economy in the global context
(d) Strategic interests
Code:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only
(2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b) and (d) only
Answer: 3
12. More productive employment demands:
(1) The pervasive use of technology
(2) Limiting the competitive market place
(3) Geo-political considerations
(4) Large industries
Answer: 1
13. Absence of technology would lead to:
(a) Less pollution
(b) Wastage of precious natural resources
(c) Low-value addition
(d) Hurting the poorest most
Codes:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only
(2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only
(4) (a), (c) and (d) only
Answer: 2
14. The advantage if technological inputs would result in:
(1) Unbridled technological growth
(2) Importing plant machinery
(3) Sideling environmental issues
(4) Lifting our people to a life of dignity
Answer: 4
15. Envisioning a developed India requires:
(1) The aspiration to become a major economics player
(2) Dependence upon projects designed abroad
(3) Focus on short-term projects
(4) Development of core technological strengths
Answer: 4
16. Differentiation between acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom communication is the basis of:
(1) The selective expectation of performance
(2) Selective affiliation to peer groups
(3) Selective attention
(4) Selective morality
Answer: 3
17. Assertion (A): The initial messages to students in the classroom by a teacher need not be critical to establishing interactions later.
Reason (R): More control over the communication process means more control over what the students are learning
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: 4
18. Assertion (A): To communicate well in the classroom is a natural ability. Reason (R): Effective teaching in the classroom demands knowledge of the communication process Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: 4
19. Assertion (A): Classroom communication is a transactional process.
Reason (R): A teacher does not operate under the assumption that studentsâ responses are purposive.
Select the correct code for your answer:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: 3
20. Which of the following set of statements is correct for describing the human communication process?
(a) Non-verbal communication can stimulate ideas.
(b) Communication is a learned ability.
(c) Communication is not a universal panacea.
(d) Communication cannot break-down.
(e) More communication means more effective learning by students.
(f) Value of what is learned through classroom communication is not an issue for students.
Codes:
(1) (a), (c), (e) and (f)
(2) (b), (d), (e) and (f)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (d), (e) and (f)
Answer: 3
21. The next term in the series -1, 5, 15, 29, ________, ⌠is
(1) 36
(2) 47
(3) 59
(4) 63
Answer: 2
22. The next term in the series: ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ________, ⌠is:
(1) ZKU
(2) ZCA
(3) ZKW
(4) ZKU
Answer: 3
23. If VARANASI is coded as WCUESGZQ, then the code of KOLKATA will be:
(1) LOQOZEH
(2) HLZEOOQ
(3) ZELHOQO
(4) LQOOFZH
Answer: 4
24. Introducing, Rakesh to her husband a woman said, âHis brotherâs father is the only son of my grandfatherâ. The woman is related to Rakesh as:
(1) Aunt
(2) Mother
(3) Sister
(4) Daughter
Answer: 3
25. Two numbers are in the ratio 2: 5. If 16 is added to both the numbers, their ratio becomes 1: 2. The numbers are:
(1) 16, 40
(2) 20, 50
(3) 28, 70
(4) 32, 80
Answer: 4
26. The superiority of intellect depends upon its power of concentration on one theme in the same way as a concave mirror collects all the rays that strike upon it into one point.
(1) Mathematical
(2) Psychological
(3) Analogical
(4) Deductive
Answer: 3
27. Given below are two premises (A and B).
Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select the code that states validity drawn conclusion (s) (taking the premises individually or jointly).
Premises:
(A) Most of the dancers are physically fit
(B) Most of the singers are dancers.
Conclusions:
(a) Most of the singers are physically fit.
(b) Most of the dancers are singers.
(c) Most of the physically fit persons are dancers.
(d) Most of the physically fit persons are singers.
Code
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (d) and (a)
Answer: 2
28. Which one among the following is a presupposition in inductive reasoning?
(1) Law of identity
(2) Un-changeability in nature
(3) Harmony in nature
(4) Uniformity of nature
Answer: 4
29. If the proposition âdomestic animals are hardly ferociousâ is taken to be false, which of the following proposition/propositions can be claimed to be certainly true? Select the correct code: Propositions:
(a) All domestic animals are ferocious.
(b) Most of the domestic animals are ferocious.
(c) No domestic animal is ferocious.
(d) Some domestic animals are non-ferocious.
Code:
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a) only
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (b) only
Answer: 1
30. Which one of the following statements is not correct in the context of the Venn diagram method?
(1) It is a method of testing the validity of arguments.
(2) It represents both the premises of a syllogism in one diagram.
(3) It requires two overlapping circles for the two premises of a standard-form categorical syllogism.
(4) It can be used to represent classes as well as propositions.
Answer: 3
Exports and Per Capita Consumption of Rice Year Production (in million kg)
Exports (in million kg) Per Capita Consumption (in kg)
2012 186.5 114 36.25
2013 202 114 35.2
2014 238 130 38.7
2015 221 116 40.5
2016 215 88 42
Where, Per Capita Consumption = (Consumption in million kg) / (Population in million) and consumption (in million kg) = Production â Exports.
31. The Percentage increase in the consumption of rice over the previous year was the highest in which year?
(1) 2013
(2) 2014
(3) 2015
(4) 2016
Answer: 2
32. What is the population of the country in the year 2014 (in million)?
(1) 2.64
(2) 2.72
(3) 2.79
(4) 2.85
Answer: 3
33. The ratio of exports to consumption in the given period was the highest in the year:
(1) 2012
(2) 2013
(3) 2014
(4) 2015
Answer: 1
34. In which year, the population of country was the highest?
(1) 2013
(2) 2014
(3) 2015
(4) 2016
Answer: 4
35. What is the average consumption of rice (in million kg) over the years 2012â 2016?
(1) 104
(2) 102.1
(3) 108
(4) 100.1
Answer: 4
36. Which of the following statements, regarding the term ICT is/are TRUE?
P: ICT is an acronym that stands for Indian Classical Technology.
Q: Converging technologies that exemplify ICT include the merging of audiovisual, telephone and computer networks through a common cabling system.
(1) P Only
(2) Q Only
(3) P and Q
(4) Neither P nor Q
Answer: 2
37. A new Laptop has been produced that weighs less, is smaller and uses less power previous Laptop models. Which of the following technologies has been
used to accomplish this?
(1) Universal Serial Bus Mouse
(2) Faster Random Access Memory
(3) Blu Ray Drive
(4) Solid State Hard Drive
Answer: 4
38. Given the following email fields, which of the email addresses will âswamiâ be able to see when he receives the message? Mail- To CC and BCC for ICT To⌠ram@test.com Cc⌠raj@test. com; ravi@test. com Bcc⌠swami@test. com; rama@test. com
(1) ram@test. com
(2) ram@test. com; raj@test. com; ravi@test. com
(3) ram@test. com; rama@test. com
(4) ram@test. com; rama@test. com; raj@test. com; ravi@test. com
Answer: 2
39. Put the following units of storage into the correct order, starting with the smallest unit first and going down to the largest unit:
(a) Kilobyte
(b) byte
(c) Megabyte
(d) Terabyte
(e) Gigabyte
(f) Bit
Give your answer from the following code:
(1) (f), (b), (a), (c), (d), (e)
(2) (f), (b), (a), (d), (e), (c)
(3) (f), (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)
(4) (f), (b), (a), (d), (c), (e)
Answer: 3
40. With regard to computer memory, which of the following statement (s) is/are TRUE?
P: Read Only Memory (ROM) is âvolatileâ memory.
Q: Random Access Memory (RAM) is âvolatileâ memory.
R: Secondary Memory is âvolatileâ memory.
(1) P only
(2) Q only
(3) P and Q only
(4) P and R only
Answer: 2
41. âFly ashâ produced in thermal power plants is an ecofriendly resource for use in:
(a) Agriculture as micro-nutrient
(b) Wasteland development
(c) Dam and water holding structures
(d) Brick industry
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only
(2) (b), (c) and (d) Only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) Only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 4
42. Which of the following types of natural disasters has no definite beginning and end?
(1) Earthquakes
(2) Landsides
(3) Hurricanes
(4) Droughts
Answer: 4
43. Assertion (A): Indoor air pollution is serious hazard.
Reason (R): The dispersal of air pollutants is rather limited in indoor environment.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer: 1
44. In terms of their contribution to the total power generation in India, Identify the correct sequence of energy sources â Thermal Power Plants (TPP), Large Hydropower Projects (LHP), Nuclear Energy (NE) and Renewable Energy (RE) which includes solar energy, wind energy, biomass, and small hydropower projects.
(1) TPP > RE > LHP > NE
(2) TPP > LHP > RE > NE
(3) LHP > TPP > RE > NE
(4) LHP > TPP > NE > RE
Answer: 2
45. Which of the following is considered a major source of pollution in rivers of India?
(1) Unregulated small scale industry
(2) Untreated sewage
(3) Agricultural run-oô
(4) Thermal power plants
Answer: 2
46. India has the largest Higher Education System in the World after:
(a) The United States of America
(b) Australia
(c) China
(d) United Kingdom (UK)
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (c) only Answer: 4
47. Prime Minister Research Fellowship is for students pursuing Ph. D program in:
(1) State and Central Universities
(2) Central Universities, IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs, and IIITs
(3) IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs, IIITs, State and Central Universities
(4) IITs and IISc
Answer: 4
48. Leader of the opposition is a member of committees which select:
(a) The central information Commissioner
(b) The Central Vigilance Commissioner
(c) The Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission
(d) The Chairperson of National Commission for women
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b) and (d) only
Answer: 2
49. Which of the following statements are correct about gender budgeting?
(a) It is a separate budget addressing the specific needs of women.
(b) It assesses the impact of the government budget on women.
(c) It is an accounting exercise.
(d) It is another budgeting innovation.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(1) (b) and (d) only
(2) (a) and (d) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (b) only
Answer: 1
50. Which of the following are the barriers to citizen-centric administration in India?
(a) Wooden and inflexible attitude of the civil servants
(b) Ineffective implementation of laws and rules
(c) Awareness of rights and duties of citizens
(d) Lack of job opportunities for the youth Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (b) only
Answer: 4
1-UGC NET Solved Question Paper 1 June 2019
2-UGC NET Solved Question Paper 1- December 2018 (22nd Dec 2018)
3-UGC NET Solved Question Paper 1- July 2018
4-UGC NET Solved Question Paper 1- January 2017
5-UGC NET Solved Question Paper 1- November 2017
6-UGC NET Solved Question Paper 1- July 2016
7-UGC NET Solved Question Paper 1- August 2016
8-UGC NET Solved Question Paper 1- June 2015
9-UGC NET Solved Question Paper 1- December 2015
10-UGC NET Solved Question Paper 1- June 2014
11-UGC NET Solved Question Paper 1- December 2014
12-UGC NET Solved Question Paper 1- June 2013
13-UGC NET Solved Question Paper 1- September 2013
14-UGC NET Solved Question Paper 1- December 2013