UGC NET Solved Question Paper 1- June 2013
Here is UGC NET Solved Question Paper 1- June 2013, click the link to read the exam paper with the complete solution for your preparation.
1. âwwwâ stands for
(A) Work with web
(B) Word wide web
(C) Worldwide web
(D) Worthwhile web
Answer: C
2. A hard disk is divided into tracks which are further subdivided into
(A) Clusters
(B) Sectors
(C) Vectors
(D) Heads
Answer: B
3. A computer program that translates a program statement by statement into machine language is called a/an
(A) Compiler
(B) Simulator
(C) Translator
(D) Interpreter
Answer: D
4. A Gigabyte is equal to
(A) 1024 Megabytes
(B) 1024 Kilobytes
(C) 1024 Terabytes
(D) 1024 Bytes
Answer: A
5. A Compiler is a software which converts
(A) Characters to bits
(B) High-level language to machine language
(C) Machine language to high-level language
(D) Words to bits
Answer: B
6. Virtual memory is
(A) an extremely large main memory.
(B) an extremely large secondary memory.
(C) an illusion of extremely large main memory
(D) a type of memory used in supercomputers.
Answer: C
7. The phrase âtragedy of commonsâ is in the context of
(A) Tragic events related to damage caused by the release of poisonous gases.
(B) Tragic conditions of poor people.
(C) Degradation of renewable free access resources
(D) Climate change
Answer: C
8. Kyoto Protocol is related to
(A) Ozone depletion
(B) Hazardous waste
(C) Climate change
(D) Nuclear energy
Answer: C
9. Which of the following is a source of emissions leading to the eventual formation of surface ozone as a pollutant?
(A) Transport sector
(B) Refrigeration and Air conditioning
(C) Wetlands
(D) Fertilizers
Answer: A
10. The smog in cities in India mainly consists of
(A) Oxides Of sulfur
(B) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt hydrocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide and SPM
(D) Oxides of sulfur and ozone
Answer: B
11. Which of the following types of natural hazards have the highest potential to cause damage to humans?
(A) Earthquakes
(B) Forest res
(C) Volcanic eruptions
(D) Droughts and Floods
Answer: D
12. The percentage share of renewable energy sources in the power production in India is around
(A) 2-3 %
(B) 22-25%
(C) l0-12%
(D) Less than 1%
Answer: C
13. In which of the following categories the enrollment of students in higher in 2010-11 was beyond the percentage of seats reserved?
(A) OBC students
(B) SC students
(C) ST students
(D) Woman students
Answer: A
14. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the University Grants Commission (UGC)?
(A) It was established in 1956 by an Act of Parliament.
(B) It is tasked with promoting and coordinating higher education.
(C) It receives Plan and Non-Plan funds from the Central Government.
(D) It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State Universities
Answer: D
15. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II): Statement: Should India switch over to a two-party system? Arguments: (I) Yes, it will lead to the stability of the Government.
(II) No, it will limit the choice of voters.
(A) The only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong;
(C) Both arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Answer: C
16. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II): Statement: Should persons with criminal background be banned from contesting elections?
Arguments: (I) Yes, it will decriminalize politics.
(II) No, it will encourage the ruling party to le frivolous cases against their political opponents.
(A) The only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong.
(C) Both arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Answer: A
17. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about a Judge of the Supreme Court of India?
1. A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President of India.
2. He holds oce during the pleasure of the President.
3. He can be suspended, pending an inquiry.
4. He can be removed for proven misbehavior or incapacity.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1 and 4
Answer: D
18. In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next only to
(A) The President
(B) The Vice-President
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Cabinet Ministers
Answer: C
19. The black-board can be utilized best by a teacher for
(A) Putting the matter of teaching in black and white
(B) Making the students attentive
(C) Writing the important and notable points
(D) Highlighting the teacher himself
Answer: C
20. Nowadays the most effective mode of learning is
(A) Self-study
(B) Face-to-face learning
(C) e-Learning
(D) Blended learning
Answer: C & D
21. At the primary school stage, most of the teachers should be women because of they
(A) It can teach children better than men.
(B) Know basic content better than men.
(C) Are available on lower salaries.
(D) Can deal with children with love and action.
Answer: D
22. Which one is the highest order of learning?
(A) Chain learning
(B) Problem-solving learning
(C) Stimulus-response learning
(D) Conditioned-relax learning
Answer: D
23. A person can enjoy teaching as a profession when he
(A) Has control over students.
(B) Commands respect from students.
(C) Does more quail than his colleagues?
(D) It is very close to higher authorities.
Answer: B
24. âA diagram speaks more than 1000 wordsâ The statement means that the teacher should
(A) Use diagrams in teaching.
(B) Speak more and more in the class.
(C) Use teaching aids in the class.
(D) Not speak too, much in the class.
Answer: C
25. A research paper
(A) Is a compilation of information on a topic.
(B) It contains original research as deemed by the author.
(C) Contains peer-reviewed original research or evaluation of research conducted by others.
(D) It can be published in more than one journal.
Answer: C
26. Which one of the following belongs to the category of good âresearch ethicsâ?
(A) Publishing the same paper in two research journals without telling the editors.
(B) Conducting a review of the literature that acknowledges the contributions of other people in the relevant led or relevant prior work.
(C) Trimming outliers from a data set without discussing your reasons, in a research paper.
(D) Including a colleague as an author on a research paper in return for a favor even though the colleague did not make a serious contribution to the paper.
Answer: B
27. Which of the following sampling methods is not based on probability?
(A) Simple Random Sampling
(B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Quota Sampling
(D) Cluster Sampling
Answer: C
28. Which one of the following references is written as per the Modern Language Association (MLA) format?
(A) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics,
New Delhi: Prentice-Hall of India, 2005
(B) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics,
New Delhi: Prentice-Hall of India, 2005
(C) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics
New Delhi â Prentice Hall India, 2005
(D) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of el
New Delhi: Prentice-Hall of India, 2005
Answer: D
(A) A conference for discussion on a topic
(B) A meeting for discussion on a topic.
(C) A class at a college or a university in which a teacher and the students discuss a topic.
(D) A brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a skill or technique for solving a specific problem.
Answer: D
30. A working hypothesis is
(A) A proven hypothesis for an argument.
(B) Not required to be tested
(C) A provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research
(D) A scientific theory
Answer: C
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (31 to 36):
The Taj Mahal has become one of the worldâs best-known monuments. This domed white marble structure is situated on a high plinth at the southern end of a four quartered garden evoking the gardens of paradise, enclosed within walls measuring 305 by 549 meters. Outside the walls, in an area known as Mumtazabad, were living quarters for attendants, markets, serais and other structures built by local merchants and nobles. The tomb complex and the other imperial structures of Mumtazabad were maintained by the income of thirty villages given specifically for the tombâs support. The name Taj Mahal is unknown in Mughal chronicles, but it is used by contemporary Europeans in India, suggesting that this was the tombâs popular name. In contemporary texts, it is generally called simply the Illuminated
Tomb (Rauza-i-Munavvara). Mumtaz Mahal died shortly after delivering her fourteenth child in 1631. The Mughal court was then residing in Burhanpur. Her remains were temporarily buried by the grief-stricken emperor in a spacious garden known as Zainabad on the bank of the river Tapti. Six months later her body was transported to Agra, where it was interred in land chosen for the mausoleum. This land, situated south of the Mughal city on the bank of the Jamuna, had belonged to the Kachhwaha rajas since the time of Raja
Man Singh and was purchased from the then current raja, Jai Singh. Although contemporary chronicles indicate Jai Singhâs willing cooperation in this exchange, extant, farmans (imperial commands) indicate that the final price was not settled until almost two years after the mausoleumâs commencement. Jai Singhâs further cooperation was insured by imperial orders issued between 1632 and 1637
demanding that he provide stone masons and carts to transport marble from the mines at Makrana, within his âancestral domainâ, to Agra where both the Taj Mahal
and Shah Jahanâs additions to the Agra fort were constructed concurrently.
Work on the mausoleum was commenced early in 1632. Inscriptional evidence indicates much of the tomb was completed by 1636. By 1643, when Shah Jahan most lavishly celebrated the âUrs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahalâ, the entire complex was virtually complete.
31. Marble stone used for the construction of the Taj Mahal was brought from the ancestral domain of Raja Jai Singh. The name of the place where mines of marble are
(A) Burhanpur
(B) Makrana
(C) Amber
(D) Jaipur
Answer: B
32. The popular name Taj Mahal was given by
(A) Shah Jahan
(B) Tourists
(C) Public
(D) European travelers
Answer: D
33. Point out the true statement from the following:
(A) Marble was not used for the construction of the Taj Mahal.
(B) Red sandstone is non-visible in the Taj Mahal complex.
(C) The Taj Mahal is surrounded by a four-quartered garden known as Chahar Bagh.
(D) The Taj Mahal was constructed to celebrate the âUrs ceremony for Mumtaz
Mahalâ.
Answer: C
34. In contemporary texts, the Taj Mahal is known
(A) Mumtazabad
(B) Mumtaz Mahal
(C) Zainabad
(D) Rauza-i-Munavvara.
Answer: D
35. The construction of the Taj Mahal was completed between the period
(A) 1632 â 1636 A.D.
(B) 1630 â 1643A.D.
(C) 1632 -1643 A.D.
(D) 1636 â 1643 A.D.
Answer: C
36. The documents indicating the ownership of land, where the Taj Mahal was built, known as
(A) Farman
(B) Sale Deed
(C) Sale-Purchase Deed
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
37. In the process of Communication, which one of the following is in the chronological order?
(A) Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Eect, Message
(B) Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Eect
(C) Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Eect
(D) Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Eect
Answer: C
38. Bengal Gazette, the rst Newspaper in India was started in 1780 by
(A) Dr. Annie Besant
(B) James Augustus Hicky
(C) Lord Cripson
(D) A.O. Hume
Answer: B
39. Press censorship in India was imposed during the tenure of the Prime Minister
(A) Rajeev Gandhi
(B) Narasimha Rao
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Deve Gowda
Answer: C
40. Communication via New media such as computers, teleshopping, internet and mobile telephony is termed as
(A) Entertainment
(B) Interactive Communication
(C) Development Communication
(D) Communitarian
Answer: B
41. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of
(A) Infotainment
(B) Edutainment
(C) Entertainment
(D) Enlightenment
Answer: B
42. âŚâŚâŚâŚâŚ is important when a teacher communicates with his/her student
(A) Sympathy
(B) Empathy
(C) Apathy
(D) Antipathy
Answer: B
43. In a certain code GALIB is represented by HBMJC. TIGER will be represented by
(A) UJHFS
(B) UHJSF
(C) JHUSF
(D) HUJSF
Answer: A
44. In a certain cricket tournament 45 matches were played. Each team played once against each of the other teams. The number of teams participated in the tournament is
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 14
Answer: B
45. The missing number in the series
40, 120, 60, 180, 90, ?, 135 is
(A) 110
(B) 270
(C) 105
(D) 210
Answer: B
46. The odd numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in an ascending order. The number at 6th position is
(A) 18
(B) 24
(C) 33
(D) 36
Answer: C
47. The mean of four numbers a, b, c, d is 100. If c = 70, then the mean of the remaining numbers is
(A) 30
(B) 85/2
(C) 170/3
(D) 110
Answer: D
48. If the radius of a circle is increased by 50%, the perimeter of the circle will increase by
(A) 20%
(B) 30%
(C) 40%
(D) 50%
Answer: D
49. If the statement âsome men are honestâ is false, which among the following statements will be true Choose the correct code given below:
(i) All men are honest
(ii) No men are honest
(iii) Some men are not honest
(iv) All men are dishonest
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (i) and (iv)
Answer: B
50. Choose the proper alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark. Bee-Honey, Cow-Milk, Teacher-?
(A) Intelligence
(B) Marks
(C) Lessons
(D) Wisdom
Answer: D
51. P is the father of R and S is the son of Q and T is the brother of P. If R is the sister of S, how is Q related to T?
(A) Wife
(B) Sister-in-law
(C) Brother-in-law
(D) Daughter-in-law
Answer: B
52. A denition put forward to resolve a dispute by inuencing attitudes or stirring emotions is called
(A) Lexical
(B) Persuasive
(C) Stipulative
(D) Precisions
Answer: B
53. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements?
Statements:
(i) Venn diagram is a clear method of notation
(ii) Venn diagram is the most direct method of testing the validity of categorical syllogisms
(iii) In the Venn diagram method the premises and the conclusion of a categorical syllogism are diagrammed.
(iv) In Venn diagram method the three overlapping circles are drawn for testing a categorical syllogism
Codes:
(A) (i) (ii) & (iii)
(B) (i) (ii) & (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) & (iv)
(D) (i) (iii) & (iv)
Answer: B
54. Inductive reasoning presupposes
(A) unity in human nature
(B) integrity in human nature
(C) uniformity in human nature
(D) harmony in human nature
Answer: C
55. Which of the following two years has recorded the highest rate of increase in area under the total horticulture?
(A) 2005-06 & 2006-07
(B) 2006-07 & 2008-09
(C) 2007-08 & 2008-09
(D) 2006-07 & 2007-08
Answer: D
56. Shares of the area under owers, vegetables, and fruits in the area under total horticulture are respectively:
(A) 1, 38 and 30 percent
(B) 30, 38 and 1 percent
(C) 38, 30 and l percent
(D) 35, 36 and 2 percent
Answer: A
57. Which of the following has recorded the highest rate of increase in are during 2005-06 to 2009-10?
(A) Fruits
(B) Vegetables
(C) Flowers
(D) Total horticulture
Answer: C
58. Find out the horticultural crop that has recorded an increase of area by around 10 percent from 2005-06 to 2009-10
(A) Fruits
(B) Vegetables
(C) Flowers
(D) Total horticulture
Answer: B
59. What has been the share of area under fruits, vegetables, and owers in the area under total horticulture in 2007- 08?
(A) 53 percent
(B) 68 percent
(C) 79 percent
(D) 100 percent
Answer: B
60. In which year, the area under fruits has recorded the highest rate of increase?
(A) 2006-07
(B) 2007-08
(C) 2008-09
(D) 2009-10
Answer: A
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