UGC NET Solved Question Paper 1- July 2016

1. Which of the following is the largest source of water pollution in major rivers of India?

(A) Untreated sewage

(B) Agriculture run-off

(D) Religious practices

Answer: A

2. Sustainable development goals have specific targets to be achieved by

(A) 2022

(B) 2030

(D) 2050

Answer: B

3. Indian government’s target of producing power from biomass by the year

2022, is

(A) 50 MW

(B) 25 MW

(D) 10 MW

Answer: Marks were given to all

4. Assertion (A): Conserving our soil resources is critical to human survival.

Reason (R): Soil is home to many micro-organisms and contains minerals.

Choose the correct code:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Answer: B

5. World Meteorological Organization’s (WMO) objective has been to reduce the number of deaths due to hydro-meteorological disasters over the decade 2010-

2019 by (with reference to the decade 1994-2003)

(A) 25%

(B) 50%

(D) 80%

Answer: B

6. ………….. is a type of memory circuitry that holds the computer’s start-up routine.

(A) RIM (Read Initial Memory)

(B) RAM (Random Access Memory)

(D) Cache Memory

Answer: C

7. An ASCII is a character-encoding scheme that is employed by personal computers in order to represent various characters, numbers and control keys that the computer user selects on the keyboard. ASCII is an acronym for:

(A) American Standard Code for Information Interchange

(B) American Standard Code for Intelligent Information

(D) American Standard Code for Isolated Information

Answer: A

8. Identify the air pollutant in urban areas which irritates eyes and also a respiratory tract of human beings.

(A) Particulate matter

(B) Oxides of nitrogen

(D) Carbon monoxide

Answer: C

9. Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct?

(a) The president is both Head of the State and Head of the Government.

(b) Parliament is Supreme.

(d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justiciable.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(B) (b), (c) and (d)

(D) (c) only

Answer: D

10. Which of the following are the fundamental duties?

(a) To respect the National Flag.

(b) To protect and improve the natural environment.

(d) To protect monuments and places of national importance.

Select the correct answer from the codes given:

Codes:

(A) (a), (b) and (c)

(B) (a), (b) and (d)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: A

11. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Niti Aayog?

(a) It is a constitutional body.

(b) It is a statutory body.

(d) It is a think-tank.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a) and (d)

(B) (b) and (d)

(D) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: C

12. Which of the following core value among the institutions of higher education are promoted by the NAAC (National Assessment and Accreditation Council)?

(a) Contributing to national development.

(b) Fostering global competencies among the students.

(d) Promoting the optimum utilization of the infrastructure.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (b), (c) and (d)

(B) (a), (b) and (c)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: B

13. The best way of providing value education is through

(A) discussions on scriptural texts

(B) lecture/discourses on values

(D) mentoring/reflective sessions on values

Answer: D

14. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been declared unconstitutional by

(A) The Supreme Court of India

(B) The High Court

(D) The President of India

Answer: A

15. Which set of learner characteristics may be considered helpful in designing active teaching-learning systems? Select the correct alternative from the codes given below:

(i) Prior experience of learners in respect of the subject.

(ii) Interpersonal relationships of learner’s family friends.

(iii) The ability of the learners in respect of the subject.

(iv) Student’s language background.

(v) The interest of students in following the prescribed dress code.

(vi) The motivational orientation of the students.

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(B) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)

(D) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

Answer: B

16. A college-level assistant professor has planned his/her lectures with intent to develop cognitive dimensions of students centered on skills of analysis and synthesis. Below, given are two sets of items Set – I consisting of levels of cognitive interchange and Set – II comprising basic requirements for promoting them. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing the correct alternative from the code:

(Levels of Cognitive Interchange)

a. Memory level

b. Understanding level

c. Reflective level

(Basic requirements for promoting cognitive interchange)

i. Giving opportunity for discriminating examples and non-examples of a point.

ii. Recording the important points made during the presentations.

iii. Asking the students to discuss various items of information.

iv. Critically analyzing the points to be made and discussed.

Codes:

a b c

(A) ii iv i

(B) iii iv ii

(D) i ii iii

Answer: C

17. Match the items of the first set with that of the second set in respect of the evaluation system. Choose the correct code:

Set – I

a. Formative evaluation with regularity

b. Summative evaluation

c. Continuous and comprehensive evaluation

d. Norm and criterion-referenced tests

Set – II

i. Evaluating cognitive and co-cognitive aspects

ii. Tests and their interpretations based on a group and certain yardsticks

iii. Grading the final learning outcomes

iv. Quizzes and discussions

Codes: a b c d

(A) iv iii i ii

(B) i ii iii iv

(D) i iii iv ii

Answer: A

18. Select the alternative which consists of positive factors contributing to the activeness of teaching:

List of factors:

(a) Teacher’s knowledge of the subject.

(b) Teacher’s socio-economic background.

(d) Teacher’s ability to please the students.

(e) Teacher’s personal contact with students.

(f) Teacher’s competence in managing and monitoring the classroom transactions.

Codes:

(A) (b), (c) and (d)

(B) (c), (d) and (f)

(D) (a), (c) and (f)

Answer: D

19. The use of teaching aids is justified on the grounds of

(A) Attracting student’s attention in the classroom.

(B) Minimizing indiscipline problems in the classroom.

(D) Effective engagement of students in learning tasks.

Answer: C

20. Assertion (A): The purpose of higher education is to promote critical and creative thinking abilities among students.

Reason (R): These abilities ensure job placements.

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Answer: B

21. In a qualitative research paradigm, which of the following features may be considered critical?

(A) Data collection with standardized research tools.

(B) Sampling design with probability sample techniques.

(D) Data gathering to take with top-down systematic evidence.

Answer: C

22. From the following list of statements identify the set which has negative implications for ‘research ethics’:

(i) A researcher critically looks at the findings of another research.

(ii) Related studies are cited without proper references.

(iii) Research findings are made the basis for policymaking.

(iv)Conduct of practitioners is screened in terms of reported research evidence.

(v) A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences from other researches.

(vi) Both policy making and policy implementing processes are regulated in terms of preliminary studies.

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (i), (iii) and (v)

Answer: C

23. In research on the effect of child-rearing practices on the stress-proneness of children in completing school projects, the hypothesis formulated is that ‘child-rearing practices do influence stress-proneness’. At the data-analysis stage, a null hypothesis is advanced to find out the tenability of the research hypothesis. On the basis of the evidence available, the null hypothesis is rejected at the 0.01 level of significance. What decision may be warranted in respect of the research hypothesis?

(A) The research hypothesis will also be rejected.

(B) The research hypothesis will be accepted.

(D) No decision can be taken in respect of the research hypothesis.

Answer: B

24. The research intends to explore the effect of possible factors for the organization of effective mid-day meal interventions. Which research method will be most appropriate for this study?

(A) Historical method

(B) Descriptive survey method

(D) Ex-post-facto method

Answer: D

25. Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement for pursuing research?

(A) Developing a research design

(B) Formulating a research question

(D) Formulating a research hypothesis

Answer: B

26. The format of thesis writing is the same as in

(A) Preparation of a research paper/article

(B) Writing of seminar presentation

(D) Presenting a workshop/conference paper

Answer: C

Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers from 27 to 32:

In terms of labor, for decades the relatively low cost and high quality of Japanese workers conferred considerable competitive advantage across numerous durable goods and consumer-electronics industries (eg. Machinery, automobiles, televisions, radios). Then labor-based advantages shifted to South Korea, then to Malaysia, Mexico and other nations. Today, China appears to be capitalizing best on the basis of labor, Japanese firms still remain competitive in markets for such durable goods, electronics, and other products, but the labor force is no longer sufficient for a competitive advantage over manufacturers in other industrializing nations. Such shifting of labor-based advantage is clearly not limited to manufacturing industries. Today a huge number of IT and service jobs are moving from Europe and North America to India, Singapore, and like countries with relatively well-educated, low-cost workforces possessing technical skills. However, as educational levels and technical skills continue to rise in other countries, India, Singapore and like nations enjoying labor-based competitive advantage today are likely to find such advantage cannot be sustained through the emergence of new competitors.

In terms of capital, for centuries the days of gold coin and later even paper money restricted financial flows. Subsequently, regional concentrations were formed where large banks, industries, and markets coalesced. But today capital flows internationally at rapid speed. Global commerce no longer requires regional interactions among business players. Regional capital concentrations in places such as New York, London and Tokyo still persist, of course, but the capital concentrated it is no longer sufficient for a competitive advantage over other capitalists distributed worldwide. Only if an organization is able to combine, integrate and apply its resources (eg. Land, labor, capital, IT) in an effective manner that is not readily imitable by competitors can such an organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime? In a knowledge-based theory of the firm, this idea is extended to view organizational knowledge as a resource with at least the same level of power and importance as the traditional economic inputs. An organization with superior knowledge can achieve a competitive advantage in markets that appreciate the application of such knowledge. Semiconductors, genetic engineering, pharmaceuticals, software, military warfare, and knowledge-intensive competitive arenas provide both time-proven and current examples. Consider semiconductors (e. g. computer chips), which are made principally of sand and common metals, these ubiquitous and powerful electronics devices are designed within common office buildings, using commercially available tools, and fabricated within factories in many industrialized nations. Hence, the land is not the key competitive recourse in the semiconductor industry.

Based on the passage answer the following questions:

27. What is required to ensure competitive advantages in specific markets?

(A) Access to capital

(B) Common office buildings

(D) Common metals

Answer: C

28. The passage also mentions the trend of

(A) Global financial flow

(B) Absence of competition in the manufacturing industry

(D) Organizational incompatibility

Answer: A

29. What does the author lay stress on in the passage?

(A) International commerce

(B) Labor-Intensive industries

(D) Knowledge-driven competitive advantage

Answer: D

30. Which country enjoyed competitive advantages in the automobile industry for decades?

(A) South Korea

(B) Japan

(D) Malaysia

Answer: B

31. Why labor-based competitive advantages of India and Singapore cannot be sustained in IT and service sectors?

(A) Due to diminishing levels of skill.

(B) Due to capital-intensive technology making inroads.

(D) Because of the shifting of labor-based advantage in manufacturing industries.

Answer: C

32. How can an organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime?

(A) Through regional capital flows.

(B) Through regional interactions among business players.

(D) By effective use of various instrumentalities.

Answer: D

33. The choice of communication partners is influenced by factors of

(A) Proximity, utility, loneliness

(B) Utility, secrecy, dissonance

(D) Dissimilarity, dissonance, deviance

Answer: A

34. As a teacher, select the best option to ensure your effective presence in the classroom.

(A) Use of peer command

(B) Making aggressive statements

(D) Being authoritarian

Answer: C

35. Every communicator has to experience

(A) Manipulated emotions

(B) Anticipatory excitement

(D) Status dislocation

Answer: B

36. Imagine you are working in an educational institution where people are of equal status. Which method of communication is best suited and normally employed in such a context?

(A) Horizontal communication

(B) Vertical communication

(D) Cross communication

Answer: A

37. Identify the important element a teacher has to take cognizance of while addressing students in a classroom.

(A) Avoidance of proximity

(B) Voice modulation

(D) Fixed posture

Answer: B

38. What are the barriers to effective communication?

(A) Moralizing, being judgmental and comments of consolation.

(B) Dialogue, summary, and self-review.

(D) Personal statements, eye contact, and simple narration.

Answer: A

39. A person walks 10 m in front and 10 m to the right. Then every time turning to his left, he walks 5, 15 and 15 m respectively. How far is he now from his starting point?

(A) 20 m

(B) 15 m

(D) 5 m

Answer: D

40. A is the sister of B. F is the daughter of G. C is the mother of B. D is the father of C. E is the mother of D. A is related to D as:

(A) Granddaughter

(B) Daughter

(D) Sister

Answer: A

41. In the series

AB, EDC, FGHI, OPQRST, the missing term is

(A) JKLMN

(B) JMKNL

(D) NMKLJ

Answer: C

42. Among the following propositions, two are related in such a way that one is the denial of the other. Which are those propositions? Select the correct code:

Propositions:

(a) All women are equal to men

(b) Some women are equal to men

(d) No women are equal to men

Codes:

(A) (a) and (b)

(B) (a) and (d)

(D) (a) and (c)

Answer: D

43. In a certain code, SELECTION is coded as QCJCARGML. The code of AMERICANS will be

(A) YKCPGAYLQ

(B) BNFSJDBMR

(D) YQKLCYPAG

Answer: A

44. In the series

3, 11, 23, 39, 59,……….

The next term will be

(A) 63

(B) 73

(D) 93

Answer: C

45. Two railway tickets from city A and B and three tickets from city A to C cost Rs.177. Three tickets from city A to B and two tickets from city A to C city Rs.173; the fare for city B from city A will be Rs.

(A) 25

(B) 27

(D) 33

Answer: D

46. Select the code, which is not correct in the context of a deductive argument with two premises:

(A) An argument with one true premise, one false premise, and a false conclusion may be valid.

(B) An argument with two true premises and a false conclusion may be valid.

(D) An argument with two false premises and a false conclusion may be valid.

Answer: B

47. Given below two premises and four conclusions are drawn from them (taking singly or together). Select the code that states the conclusions validly drawn.

Premises:

(i) All religious persons are emotional.

(ii) Ram is a religious person.

Conclusions:

(a) Ram is emotional.

(b) All emotional persons are religious.

(d) Some religious persons are not emotional.

Codes:

(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(B) (a) only

(B) (a) and (c) only

(D) (b) and (c) only

Answer: C

48. If the proposition ‘All thieves are poor’ is false, which of the following propositions can be claimed certainly to be true?

Propositions:

(A) Some thieves are poor.

(B) Some thieves are not poor.

(D) No poor person is a thief.

Answer: B

49. Consider the following statement and select the correct code stating the nature of the argument involved in it: To suppose that the earth is the only populated world in the infinite space is as absurd as to assert that in an entire field of millet only one grain will grow.

(A) Astronomical

(B) Anthropological

(D) Analogical

Answer: D

50. Select the code, which is not correct about the Venn diagram:

(A) Venn diagram represents propositions as well as classes.

(B) It can provide clear method of notation.

(D) It can provide the direct method of testing the validity.

Answer: C

The following table shows the percentage profit (%) earned by two companies A and B, during the years 2011-15. Answer questions 51-53 based on the data contained in the table:

Year	Percentage Profit (%)
A	B
2011	20	30
2012	35	40
2013	45	35
2014	40	50
2015	25	35

Where, percent (%) Prot = (Income-Expenditure) × 100/Expenditure

51. If the total expenditure of the two companies was Rs.9 lakh in the year 2012 and the expenditure of A and B were in the ratio2:1, then what was the income of the company A in that year?

(A) Rs.9.2 lakh

(B) Rs.8.1 lakh

(D) Rs.6.0 lakh

Answer: B

52. What is the average percentage-profit earned by the company B?

(A) 35%

(B) 42%

(D) 40%

Answer: C

53. In which year, the percentage-profit earned by company B is less than that of company A?

(A) 2012

(B) 2013

(D) 2015

Answer: B

The following table shows the number of people in different age groups who responded to a survey about their favorite style of music. Use this information to answer the questions that follow: (Question 54-56) to the nearest whole percentage:

54. Approximately what percentage of the total sample were aged 21-30?

(A) 31%

(B) 23%

(D) 14%

Answer: C

55. Approximately what percentage of the total sample indicates that Hip-Hop is their favorite style of music?

(A) 6%

(B) 8%

(D) 12%

Answer: D

56. What percentage of respondents aged 31+ indicated a favorite style other than classical music?

(A) 64%

(B) 60%

(D) 50%

Answer: C

57. An unsolicited e-mail message sent to many recipients at once is a:

(A) Worm

(B) Virus

(D) Spam

Answer: D

58. The statement “the study, design, development, implementation, support or management of computer-based information systems, particularly software applications and computer hardware” refers to:

(A) Information Technology (IT)

(B) Information and Collaborative Technology (ICT)

(D) Artificial Intelligence (AI)

Answer: A

59. If the binary equivalent of the decimal number 48 is 110000, then the binary equivalent of the decimal number 51 is given by

(A) 110011

(B) 110010

(D) 110100

Answer: A

60. The process of copying les to a CD-ROM is known as

(A) Burning

(B) Zipping